I got this problem, and i dont even know from where to go about it.
so given a sequence with the length of n+1 that is natural number.
now
\(1\leq{a1}<a2...<a(n+1)}\leq{2}\)
now i need to prove that for any sequence that obey that rule,
there is 2 number in that sequence that can devide each other.
how do it go about it?
Ops my bad i actually posted it in the wrong place :D![]()
so given a sequence with the length of n+1 that is natural number.
now
\(1\leq{a1}<a2...<a(n+1)}\leq{2}\)
now i need to prove that for any sequence that obey that rule,
there is 2 number in that sequence that can devide each other.
how do it go about it?
Ops my bad i actually posted it in the wrong place :D